2=1 , I Got A Proof!

chimpmunk · Nov 7, 2003

(a+b) x (a-b) = a² - ab+ ba- b² '-ab and +ba cancel each others
(a+b) x (a-b) = a² - b² 'now lets divide by (a-b)
((a+b) x (a-b)) / (a-b) = a² - b² / (a-b)
(a+b) = a²+b² / a-b
'now lets say a=b=1 it gives us:
1+1 = 1-1/ 1-1
2=1

FREAKY if it's right...

Letters · Nov 7, 2003

It's not.

chimpmunk · Nov 7, 2003

no? damn either its a dumbass joke someone played on me or i miscopied it, where the error?

Maxi · Nov 7, 2003

a^2+b^2/a-b is not a=b=1, not by a long shot. IF im right its a^2+b^2/a-b=0 or (a+b)^2/a-b=0. Sorry

ComradeBadger · Nov 7, 2003

I shall check this in the morning... too tired to put my maths skills to the test :|

Maxi · Nov 7, 2003

Im sorry that doesn't make any sence... we haven't gone thru how to divide equasions like that in math yet... :/ but the other stuff i know is true.

Letters · Nov 7, 2003

Originally posted by chimpmunk
no? damn either its a dumbass joke someone played on me or i miscopied it, where the error?

Toward the end... and even then... 1-1/1-1 = 1?! What?! I thought 1-1 was ZERO!

(it should really be (1+1)/(1-1), but it'd still be undefined)

chimpmunk · Nov 7, 2003

Originally posted by MaxiKana
a^2+b^2/a-b is not a=b=1, not by a long shot. IF im right its a^2+b^2/a-b=0 or (a+b)^2/a-b=0. Sorry

A and B are variables (or variant? whats the english word ? lol) so basically i can give them the value i want.

nw909 · Nov 7, 2003

1+1 = 10

Maxi · Nov 7, 2003

Yeah i knew that... lemme try to find the error now then

i should know how to... this is what im studying in math right now..

chimpmunk · Nov 7, 2003

ok find the bugs ill be back tommorrow after work, C ya

Letters · Nov 7, 2003

That's it... don't mind me...

Chris D · Nov 7, 2003

1 + 1 = 2 so if 2 = 1 then 1 + 1 = 4? :s

nw909 · Nov 7, 2003

Originally posted by Chris_D
1 + 1 = 2 so if 2 = 1 then 1 + 1 = 4? :s

4x1 = 8

Tr0n · Nov 7, 2003

1 + 1 = 11

Maxi · Nov 7, 2003

(a+b) x (a-b) = a² - ab+ ba- b² //-ab and +ba gets canceled out that leavs us with:
(a+b)(a-b) =a² - b² //then we move on
a²-ab+ab+b²= a²-b² //then -ab and +ba cancle eachother out again
a²+b²=a²-b² and thats the answer... i think... IF i understood it correctly

dfc05 · Nov 7, 2003

yay, math

ok, the problem has to be at this point (besides the (1+1)/(1-1) part)
((a+b) x (a-b)) / (a-b) = a² - b² / (a-b)
(a+b) = a²+b² / a-b
how is a^2 - b^2 becoming a^2+b^2

edit: so what (a² - b²)/(a-b) really equals is just a+b
since a²-b² factors into (a-b)(a+b) which is what you started out with anyways

oldi1knoby · Nov 7, 2003

Here is how it works... you don't even cross the -ab and the +ba over...

(A+B) x (A-B) = A^2 - B^2

Now, if you divide by 1/2 on both sides, you are CHANGING THE EQUATION.....

Pretty much (A+B)X(A+B) = (A+B)X(A+B)

If you divide the left by something and the right by something it will be the exact same thing. You did the division wrong actually.

So, therefore if you divide both sides by (A+B) you get (A-B)/(A+B)=(A-B)/(A+B)

The way you did the math, you subtracted from the left side and divided on the right side...

Sorry, but 1 = 1 ...

dfc05 · Nov 7, 2003

Originally posted by MaxiKana
(a+b) x (a-b) = a² - ab+ ba- b² //-ab and +ba gets canceled out that leavs us with:
(a+b)(a-b) =a² - b² //then we move on
a²-ab+ab+b²= a²-b² //then -ab and +ba cancle eachother out again
a²+b²=a²-b² and thats the answer... i think... IF i understood it correctly

(a+b)(a-b) doesn't equal a^2+B^2, it's minus
you multiplied it out properly in the first step; it doesn't change when you remultiplied later on

Chris D · Nov 7, 2003

That's all very nice ladies, but that still doesn't enlighten me to how the **** 1 can = 2.

Letters · Nov 7, 2003

Originally posted by MaxiKana
(a+b) x (a-b) = a² - ab+ ba- b² //-ab and +ba gets canceled out that leavs us with:
(a+b)(a-b) =a² - b² //then we move on
a²-ab+ab+b²= a²-b² //then -ab and +ba cancle eachother out again
a²+b²=a²-b² and thats the answer... i think... IF i understood it correctly

No, it'd be a²-b²=a²-b²... -b*b is a NEGATIVE b...

Maxi · Nov 7, 2003

Yeah... that was what i was trying to explain... its moot

...but i did something wrong.... im tired...im going to sleep...yees....

dfc05 · Nov 7, 2003

Originally posted by Chris_D
That's all very nice ladies, but that still doesn't enlighten me to how the **** 1 can = 2.

it can't

SidewinderX · Nov 7, 2003

In this circumstance, you cannot divide by zero. simple as that.

(now if we want to play with limits and derivitiaves... tjhat's a diffrent story.)

oldi1knoby · Nov 7, 2003

No one is dividing by Zero...rofl

You can NEVER divide by zero... not just in this instance...

dfc05 · Nov 7, 2003

you don't need to divide by zero; if you divide by the a-b you can take it out when you factor the numerator

edit: oops too slow

Chris D · Nov 7, 2003

Well, you've made up my mind fellas, I'm glad I left school at 16.

Maxi · Nov 7, 2003

Lol

well you shouldn't have

Chris D · Nov 7, 2003

Well if it meant I'd have to learn stuff like that I'm certainly glad.

dfc05 · Nov 7, 2003

wait but that was in algebra so if you left school at 16 wouldn't you still have had to learn stuff like that

Chris D · Nov 7, 2003

Ahh probably. I have selective memory.

Maxi · Nov 7, 2003

Not in the good 'ol us of a... but here in Finland we do... i just started that course...

RabidMeatloaf · Nov 7, 2003

Originally posted by nw909
1+1 = 10

AH HA!! I KNEW IT WAS TRUE!! And to think my math teacher laughed at me.......

Maxi · Nov 7, 2003

um Doh its 11 not 10... :/

SidewinderX · Nov 7, 2003

Originally posted by oldi1knoby
No one is dividing by Zero...rofl

You can NEVER divide by zero... not just in this instance...

1) Yes they are dividing by zero. (1-1/1-1) is an undefined number. The math works fine, until you have this circumstance. You cannot jsut say it equal 1 because both the top and the bottom are the same. They both equal 0 witch is an undefinced number, there for out of the domain for this equation. Thus 2 does not equal 1.

2) Quite on the contrary; you can always divide by zero. We just don't know what it will equal, so it's "undefined".

Dedalus · Nov 7, 2003

Originally posted by chimpmunk
(a+b) x (a-b) = a² - ab+ ba- b² '-ab and +ba cancel each others
(a+b) x (a-b) = a² - b² 'now lets divide by (a-b)
((a+b) x (a-b)) / (a-b) = a² - b² / (a-b)
(a+b) = a²+b² / a-b
'now lets say a=b=1 it gives us:
1+1 = 1-1/ 1-1
2=1

FREAKY if it's right...

that looks correct but look closer. the second from bottom line is wrong.

1+1 = 1-1/ 1-1

2 = 1-1 / 1-1

let's remember some elementary rules: you cannot divide by 0 as the result will tend to infinity. you're wrong to writw 1-1 / 1-1 = 1 , because it works out to be infinity. try it on your calculator.

1-1 / 1-1 = ?

0 / 0 = infinity

therefore: 2 = infinity ----> which makes no sense.

close but no cigar.

it would work IF you decided to cancel out the -1 from top and bottom:

1 [-1] / 1 [-1]

if you got rid of the [-1] then yes, it would be 1/1 which is equal to 1, then you get your result 2 = 1. but i'm unsure whether you can cancel like that.

EDIT: didn't read the whole post, SidewinderX143 hit the nail on the head.

Maxi · Nov 7, 2003

I don't think you can.. besides 2 can't be one, it is impossible.

Dedalus · Nov 7, 2003

anything can be proven my mathematical rigour. the only way we can prove this is to use proof by contradiction, and say that 2 is not equal to 1 and start a whole load of waffle and numbers etc cue falling off chair into coma and brain dribbling out of noses.

DigiQ8 · Nov 8, 2003

\Enter Thread\
\See many numbers\
Ahhhhh MY HEAD !!

P.S I hate math.

Maxi · Nov 8, 2003

I like physics more then math... i like problem solving

and formulas n stuff..

2=1 , I Got A Proof!

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