Sulkdodds
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Why shouldn't it be?I always hear the arguement that if gayness between two adults is allowed, then incest between two adults will be allowed.
1) Is it actually morally wrong?
2) What should be the law's response to it?
My opinion: as to the first question, obviously not, at least in any fundamental way. The shiver of revulsion one might feel at the prospect of having sexual congress with one's own family is in no way an indication of its moral (rather than sexual) deviancy. Disgust has never been a justification for very much. Most of us are agreed that what two consenting adults do to each other is quite their own business, unless it harms someone else. Here, however, is where problems develop. While any argument claiming that incest itself is immoral is likely to fall flat on its face, there's rather more reason for objecting to the act of procreation within family. Because of the great genetic risks involved it seems dangerous, and perhaps unfair, for parents to deliberately conceive a child with great risk of congenital disorder.
This leads us to the second question. Should the law seek to prevent the conception of such children? Can it justifiably do so - is it any different, fundamentally, from having children when illness runs in one's family, or even from bearing children into terrible material circumstances? If it is, and the law should legislate against it, how? You can't practicall enforce the rule 'don't get pregnant' or 'always use contraception'; any statute prohibiting extra children would be pointless, because the child would be born and the damage would be done; meanwhile, I'd be extremely uncomfortable in the face of any situation in which people were legally obligated to have abortions. And simply prohibiting marriage wouldn't work either - people are born out of wedlock and marriages can exist without children. This is a question I don't know the answer to.
Discuss.