If 0.999...=1 then does 1.888...=2?

Status
Not open for further replies.
Kyo said:
It's a flaw in our number system get over it. This is what happens when mankind developes a system to understand things? Unlike say physics which doesn't purley rely on stupidity.
Click to expand...

There is flaw within your brain. You cannot understand abstract concept.

if 2.999...998 exists,
therefore (4-2.99...998)/4 exists
1.999... does not has infinite 9s at all.
This violates the initial statement.
 
0.9999999.... = 9/10 + 9/100 + 9/1000 +....

=SUM[ 9 / (10)^x ]; x =1, inf
=9 SUM[ (1/ 10)^x ]; x= 1, inf
=9 [ (1 / (9/10)) - 1]

= 9 [ (10/9) - 1]
= 9 [1/9]
= 1

that's your proof. sorry couldn't resist the temptation :D

Now, as for 1.888.... = 2. No

1.88888.... = 1 + [8/10 + 8/100 + 8/1000 +....]

= 1 + SUM[8/(10)^x]; x = 1, inf
= 1 + 8SUM[(1/10)^x]; x= 1, inf
= 1 + 8[(1/(9/10)) - 1]
= 1 + 8[(10/9) - 1]
= 1 + 8[1/9]
= 17/9

17/9 != 2
 
Kyo said:
It's a flaw in our number system get over it. This is what happens when mankind developes a system to understand things? Unlike say physics which doesn't purley rely on stupidity.
Click to expand...
win
 
Kyo said:
It's a flaw in our number system get over it. This is what happens when mankind developes a system to understand things? Unlike say physics which doesn't purley rely on stupidity.
Click to expand...

Physics does always rely so much on Maths. :p
 
I was merley stating in a number system it is impossible for infinity to exist, which can be proven with simple arithmatic.

bbson_john said:
Physics does always rely so much on Maths. :p
Click to expand...

Good english. True maths is the language of physics but there are circumstances where our laws of physics are broken.
 
Kyo said:
I was merley stating in a number system it is impossible for infinity to exist, which can be proven with simple arithmatic.



Good english. True maths is the language of physics but there are circumstances where our laws of physics are broken.
Click to expand...
You say the strangest things...
 
bbson_john said:
There is flaw within your brain. You cannot understand abstract concept.

if 2.999...998 exists,
therefore (4-2.99...998)/4 exists
1.999... does not has infinite 9s at all.
This violates the initial statement.
Click to expand...


bbson_john is my new hero.
 
0.9 repeating does not equal 1. Because if you could convert 0.9 repeating into a fraction you will not get 1.

The problem is that no matter how many .9's you put on there you are never going to make it into a 1. While you may be wondering...what number is between those 2 numbers. There isn't a number, but that dosn't mean they are the same number. Because this is where the 0's end. This is the last number with a base of 0 before numbers start having a base of 1. Something must end before something else can begin.
 
bbson_john said:
if 2.999...998 exists,
therefore (4-2.99...998)/4 exists
1.999... does not has infinite 9s at all.
This violates the initial statement.
Click to expand...
Are you saying that 2.999...998 doesn't exist?
ikerous said:
Code: 
                 n=N
          = lim (Σ  9·10-n) + c·10^-(N+1)
            N→∞ n=1

          = lim 1 - 10-N + c·10^-(N+1)
            N→∞

          = 1

In the first equation with N=1 and c=7 you get .97, with N=2 you get .997, with N=3 you get .9997. So as N goes to infinity, couldnt it be represented by '.999...7'?

I mean, it wouldnt be the best way to represent the series, but it seems to make sense.
Click to expand...
Doesn't this show that you can have an infinite number of 9's with a number attached to the end?
 
I have a question actually...
How come 1/3 is always represented as .33 repeating..why not just make it easier and put .34? There the same number afterall.
 
Minerel said:
I have a question actually...
How come 1/3 is always represented as .33 repeating..why not just make it easier and put .34? There the same number afterall.
Click to expand...
What is between 1 and 1.9999...?
And what is between 1.3333.... and 1.34?
 
Nothing is between them. But just because theres nothing between them does that make them the same thing?

If I have 2 atoms. I have 2 neutrals placed directly next to eachother...there is aboslutely no space between them even down to the smallest level possible level. Are they the same thing? Are they one? No they are still 2 different things. Just because there is nothing between them does not make them the same.
 
Minerel said:
Nothing is between them. But just because theres nothing between them does that make them the same thing?
Click to expand...
Let M be the first number and N be the second number

If nothing is between M and N then M - N = 0

If M - N = 0, then M = N
 
They may be two seperate numbers, but they are still the same number. It's like having two seperate 1's. They both exist, and they both = 1.


Edit : What he said ^^^
 
Lets do some simple math like...
1.00000000000000000000000000000000000
-
0.99999999999999999999999999999999999

first you have to start from right going towards left.
0 - 9. Now you have to distribute the 1 from the left until you get to the end number and at the end number you make it a 10.
.999999999999999999999999999999999910
.99999999999999999999999999999999999

Now since both the 0's and 9's never end you will never be able to properly distribute the one.

Therefor you cannot subtract 1 and .9 repeating. It is impossible.
 
Minerel said:
Lets do some simple math like...
1.00000000000000000000000000000000000
-
0.99999999999999999999999999999999999

first you have to start from right going towards left.
0 - 9. Now you have to distribute the 1 from the left until you get to the end number and at the end number you make it a 10.
.999999999999999999999999999999999910
.99999999999999999999999999999999999

Now since both the 0's and 9's never end you will never be able to properly distribute the one.

Therefor you cannot subtract 1 and .9 repeating. It is impossible.
Click to expand...
Well.. that made no sense
But you can subtract the two. It's easier to simplify .999... first. As shown several times, .999... = 1, so replace it with 1 and subtract. 1 - 1 = 0
 
Yes it made perfect sense. How can you fail to understand subtraction.

Take:
87605
- 2006
You would do this:
8759 15
- 200 6
15 - 6 is 9
9 - 0 is 9
5 - 0 is 5
7 -2 is 5
8 - 0 is 8
85599 is the number you get.

Now take 87605 - 2006 in your calculation..you get 85599.
 
Minerel said:
Nothing is between them. But just because theres nothing between them does that make them the same thing?

If I have 2 atoms. I have 2 neutrals placed directly next to eachother...there is aboslutely no space between them even down to the smallest level possible level. Are they the same thing? Are they one? No they are still 2 different things. Just because there is nothing between them does not make them the same.
Click to expand...

I don't know your case. However, a real numbers' property is that for all 2 distinct real numbers there must be at least another distinct real number between them
 
Well I guess that means .9 repeating is not a real number.
 
I never realized how ****ed up our math system was...

Although rules were made to be broken.....or better yet... "bended" matrix lingo!!!

Although why does .999 exist? Why does Pi exist? Why in the world were numbers that never end ever built with our math system if infact we can represent them easier with a single number?

I love being ignorant.
 
Minerel said:
I never realized how ****ed up our math system was...

Although rules were made to be broken.....or better yet... "bended" matrix lingo!!!

Although why does .999 exist? Why does Pi exist? Why in the world were numbers that never end ever built with our math system if infact we can represent them easier with a single number?

I love being ignorant.
Click to expand...

So people developed π to represent pi. 1 to represent 0.999... .
You should blame the nature why ratio of a circle's circumference to its diameter is pi and why there are fractions. Or blame why some silly people not to find something meaningful to do instead of creating a subject called Maths. Or simply blame why you were born an idiot. I mean in Maths, not other aspects. Being an idiot is nothing special, nothing wrong. Everyone is an idiot in certain subjects. Never misunderstand my meaning. Don't report me. THIS IS DEFINITELY NOT DEFAMATION!
 
bbson_john said:
So people developed π to represent pi. 1 to represent 0.999... .
You should blame the nature why ratio of a circle's circumference to its diameter is pi and why there are fractions. Or blame why some silly people not to find something meaningful to do instead of creating a subject called Maths. Or simply blame why you were born an idiot. I mean in Maths, not other aspects. Being an idiot is nothing special, nothing wrong. Everyone is an idiot in certain subjects. Never misunderstand my meaning. Don't report me. THIS IS DEFINITELY NOT DEFAMATION!
Click to expand...
Your time now is around 3.45 when i posted this correct?
 
Infinity does not belong in maths. It does elsewhere but keep it the hell away from maths.
 
Ikerous said:
Let M be the first number and N be the second number

If nothing is between M and N then M - N = 0

If M - N = 0, then M = N
Click to expand...
I lol'd at how he had to explain this.
 
For people saying 0.999rep is not 1; would you say 1-0.999rep = 0.000rep ? and not 0? lol
 
The Brick said:
For people saying 0.999rep is not 1; would you say 1-0.999rep = 0.000rep ? and not 0? lol
Click to expand...

Yes I would. It's 0.000....0001.
 
Kyo said:
Infinity does not belong in maths. It does elsewhere but keep it the hell away from maths.
Click to expand...
Right...

I think it's obvious that the people who find this hard to believe shouldn't be thinking of doing a math oriented study :p

This is nowhere as abstract as you may see later on.
 
Easiest way to explain it

Infinity + 1 = Infinity [Poor concept I know]
Infinity - Infinity = -1
0 = -1 [Does not compute]
 
Ikerous said:
But couldnt you just change the limit series proof of .999 = 1 to

Code: 
                 n=N
          = lim (Σ  9·10-n) + c·10^-(N+1)
            N→∞ n=1

          = lim 1 - 10-N + c·10^-(N+1)
            N→∞

          = 1

In the first equation with N=1 and c=7 you get .97, with N=2 you get .997, with N=3 you get .9997. So as N goes to infinity, couldnt it be represented by '.999...7'?

I mean, it wouldnt be the best way to represent the series, but it seems to make sense.
Click to expand...
The limit of the series is still 1, not 0.9999999999999....97
You can prove it using construction by dedekind cuts.
 
Kyo said:
Infinity does not belong in maths. It does elsewhere but keep it the hell away from maths.
Click to expand...
It does belong it maths, what makes you say otherwise?
 
Status
Not open for further replies.

Similar threads

TechnoHippyChic
If you post it, they will come...
2
Replies
63
Views
7K
TechnoHippyChic
TechnoHippyChic
Tollbooth Willie
HL2.NET HORROR SLAP
Replies
7
Views
2K
Tollbooth Willie
Tollbooth Willie
Lizardizzle
2019: The year of Half-Life SFX videos
Replies
4
Views
2K
Ennui
Ennui
bbson john
Hi everyone. I am new to this forum!
Replies
11
Views
6K
Tollbooth Willie
Tollbooth Willie
MFL
Fascinating look at the ongoing psychological evolution of flat hieirarchies.
Replies
2
Views
2K
Tollbooth Willie
Tollbooth Willie
Back
Top